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Ambassador Baptist Church
1926 Babcock Blvd
Pittsburgh, PA 15209
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  Your Are Here: BridgeGalleyAsk The Pastor Etymology

Ask the Pastor - Etymology
Ask the Pastor
If you have a doctrinal question or item you would like to learn more about, just send it to us at "Ask the Pastor". We will post the answer on-line. Simply click on a question to see an answer.

---------- Etymology ----------

I have enclosed an article where Bro. ----- teaches that Jesus went to the fires of Hell for three days to pay for our sins because the Bible says that Christ's soul was not left in Hell. He says that all the Old Testament saints went to Heaven as soon as they died because Hell can only refer to a place of torment. He says that in Luke 16 "Abraham's bosom" is Heaven, and that when Christ said the thief on the cross would be with Him in Paradise that meant that the thief was going directly to Heaven, and that since Jesus is omnipresent He was going to be in suffering in Hell and in Heaven with the thief at the same time. What do you think about this?
In what context/meaning are the words of Jesus when he refers to
"SON of MAN"? Does it have different applications?

I have some questions about Job...
When did the Hypostatic Union of Christ end?
Just wondering if you could point me to any additional information on "stole" and "katastole".
What is your position on Spirit Baptism from Corinthians 12:13?
What does it mean to be "born again", and who is "born again"?
A friend of mine is looking for a church, and wrote: "We're reading a book called Ekklesia that talks about the roots of the Biblical church. It presents a totally different model for church than what we typically see here: house churches instead of bigger institutional church buildings, interactive, open meetings where every brother can give a word of instruction, song, prophecy, tongue/interpretation, etc; elder-led church governance as opposed to a hierarchy ruled church, celebrating the Lord's supper as a full meal rather than a wafer and little cup, etc." Do you have any thoughts on the above?
I had a question about the dispute over 1 John 5:7-8. I've read in several places that originally, Erasmus didn't have it in his first couple of editions, and then he only put it in once he was presented with a copy that had been taken from a manuscript that only had it in the margins in the 5th century or something. I realize that it does not change the doctrine of the Trinity, but I would like to have more understanding concerning this passage.
A Response to a Roman Catholic's Criticisms
"When did the word pastor first get used in Christendom?
I read something on the internet where you stated that the Greek word "katastole" was translated into the English as "modest apparel." .....
I have a question about I John 3:4-10" .....

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